We have all heard about Granville Sharp's rule and its application or non-application of it in Titus 2:13, 2 Peter 1:1, and in other texts which may or may not call Jesus "God (god)" directly.
A recent book has been published by Dr. Daniel B. Wallace on the subject defending "Sharp's Rule", or what he calls, the "Sharper Rule."
In response, Greg Stafford of Elihubooks has issued a review and critique of Dr. Wallace's past and present works on this issue. It's a new 30 page paper where he defends his view about the subject and introduces a new exception to "Sharp's Rule."
Hello,
ReplyDeleteI was wondering if you could help me: While discussing John 1:1 someone made the following comment. I couldn't really understand it very well... could you (or any of your followers) explain/answer this in plain (SIMPLE with a capital S) english? Does it relate to "sharp's rule"? Is the writer correct?
The comment was as follows:
You have a coplative sentence: Both subject and direct object are in the nominative case...rather than a Nominative/accusative case relationship.No 'a' is permissable then.
........
Two nominative case structures as subject and direct object.
direct object in the accusative means you can put in the article.
direct object in the nominative means you cannot put in the article.
Thanks (love your sites)
JWF
Hi, Rosie:
ReplyDeleteBy "coplative sentence" I think that one meant a "copulative sentence." Personally, I don't see the relevancy to John 1:1.
As for nominative case and accusative, these are merely Greek cases usually used to distinguish subject from direct object of a particular verb.
The accusative/nominative case has no bearing on whether the article can be used or not.
For instance, in John 1:1 we have the first "God" in the accusative (Ton Theon, literally, "THE GOD"). In John 1:1c we have "God" in the nominative because it is a noun.
I don't know if this makes any sense? (I think some context of the discussion would help as well)
Best,
Ivan